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My Humps: Bimodal Nookie Distributions

August 13th, 2007 · 5 Comments

Various folks are linking a New York Times piece on how the frequently-reported disparity in the average number of male and female sex partners is mathematically impossible. Maybe I’m missing something here, but while it’s clearly impossible for the (heterosexual) mean to be different, there’s no strictly mathematical problem with the median being different—which is the claim made by at least some of the studies under discussion—because the median doesn’t tell you anything about what’s going on at the far ends of the distribution. If the most sexually active quarter of the female population suddenly doubled its average number of lifetime sex partners, you wouldn’t necessarily see the median budge.

The Times analysis purports to debunk the old promiscuous-males, chaste-females stereotype. But if you think about what such a difference in the shapes of the partner distributions would require, it would actually fit pretty well. It would entail that the male outliers—men who have large numbers of partners—are mostly sleeping with people at the most active end of the female distribution, whereas the most active women are also finding willing partners in the middle of the male distribution.

Now, this is all so obvious that if the academic researchers and mathematicians the Times quotes are maintaining the position they do, it must be that this picture is also not borne out by the data. In other words, it must be false that there’s some subset of the respective population for which the usual relationship flips, with women in (say) the most active quintile having substantially more partners than their male counterparts. And, indeed, the idea that men would frequently fudge up and women fudge down in self-reports is highly plausible. But it seems awfully sloppy of the Times reporter not to raise this issue and clarify it.

Tags: Sexual Politics


       

 

5 responses so far ↓

  • 1 LP // Aug 13, 2007 at 1:49 pm

    I notice that the NYT article performs the bait-and-switch in the 3rd and 4th paragraphs: In the 3rd, the article gives the ‘median’ figures, then in the 4th switches to ‘average’ (normally considered to be the same as the ‘mean’) without warning. Bad journalism, obviously, but these kinds of mistakes are awfully common when statistics are concerned. A few months ago I read an article in USA Magazine about the rising diabetes epidemic among african-american women, complete with a graph illustrating the numbers (a nice climbing line). Underneath the graph, in very small print, it said “These results are not statistically significant.”

  • 2 Lane // Aug 13, 2007 at 2:21 pm

    Spot on. See also Volokh

  • 3 LP // Aug 13, 2007 at 3:23 pm

    A SciAm blogger who ought to know better fell for this too, but the commenters caught it:

    http://blog.sciam.com/index.php?title=men_average_more_sexual_partners_than_wo&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1&more=1#comments

  • 4 Phil // Aug 18, 2007 at 5:34 am

    It’s worth pointing out that the “proof” in the NYTimes article is complete bullshit, since it assumes equal numbers of males and females. Obviously if there’s only one guy and twenty girls at the “prom,” then the average number of partners can be higher for males than for females. Just saying.

  • 5 Phil // Aug 18, 2007 at 5:40 am

    Well OK, the proof doesn’t assume this, but it only proves the trivial fact that the total number of “dances” participated in by boys and girls must be equal. One must then assume that the number of boys and girls is equal in order to show that the averages are equal, which is sort of the point.